1. f(xy)=f(x)+f(y)-1 for any pair of positive integers x and y.
2. f(x)=1 holds for only finitely many x.
3. f(30)=4
Solution
From (1) we find that
f(30)=f(2*15)=f(2)+ f(15)-1
= f(2)+ f(3*5)-1
= f(2) + f(3) + f(5) – 2
With (3) this yields:
f(2)+f(3)+f(5)-2=4
f(2)+2f(3)+f(5)=6 (4)
Lemma (1)
Neither f(2), nor f(3), nor f(5) can be 1.
Proof
That means that infinitely many numbers x have f(x)=1
This is a contradiction with (2).
Combining lemma with [1] tells us that f(2)=f(3)=f(5)=2.
Lemma (2)
f(a^n) = n f(a) – (n-1)
the above can be proved by induction
It follows from (1) that:I have solved the same at https://in.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20131011072645AAoFbsS
f(14400)=f(144 * 100)
= f( 2^ 4 * 3^ 2 * 2^2 * 5^2)
= f(2^6 * 3^2 * 5^2)
= 6f(2) + 2f(3) + 2f(5)- 9 = 6 * 2 – 5 + 2 * 2 -1 + 2 * 2 – 1 - 2 = 10*2 - 9 = 11
some short and selected math problems of different levels in random order I try to keep the ans simple
Saturday, July 25, 2015
2015/065) What is the value of f(14400) from the following case?
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